Đề thi olympic lớp 8 năm học: 2012 – 2013 môn: Tiếng Anh

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HUYỆN THANH OAI
 ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 8
 Năm học: 2012 – 2013
	 Môn: Tiếng Anh 	
 Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 05 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 05.	 	
- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này.
Điểm
Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:
Số phách
- Bằng số:……………..
………………………………………...
(Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi)
- Bằng chữ:……………
Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2:
…………………..
………………………...
………………………………………...
I. PHONETICS: 
a. Choose one word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C, or D: (60,2=1,2 pts)
1.
A. says
B. days
C. prays
D. plays
2.
A. husband
B. surrounding
C. rubbish
D. plumber
3.
A. 	informative
B. information
C. formal
D. forward
4.
A. stream
B. teacher
C. weather
D. teammate
5. 
A. restaurant
B. festival
C. sentence
D. semester
6. 
A. through
B. shout
C. household
D. mountain
b. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others (40,2=0,8 pt)
7.
A. demontrate
B. commercial
C. comfortable
D. generous
8.
A. institute
B. position
C. behavior
D. equipment
9.
A. medical
B. minimize
C. physical
D. selection
10. 
A. grateful
B. order
C. reduce
D. comfort
II VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:
a. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (150,2=3,0 pts)
11. The representatives from “Friends of the Earth” show us how to .............................. the 
 environment.
A. prevent
B. protect
C. refill
D. reduce
12. Tam .............................. last night when the telephone .............................. 
A. was sleeping - rang 
B. slept - was ringing
C. slept - rang
D. was sleeping - was ringing
13. She knows that she .............................. to pay now.
A. ought
B. mustn’t
C. had better
D. should
14. John .............................. Susan to go out with him but her parents didn’t let her out.	
A. helpes
B. insisted
C. suggested
D. invited
15. He hates.............................. to do something by others.
A. to ask
B. asking
C. to be asked
D. being asked
16. Everyone has to follow this way to get into the fair, ..............................?
A. do they
B. doesn’t he
C. don’t they
D. doesn’t she
17. This time last year my brother.............................. in London.
A. will study
B. studied
C. has studied
D. was studying
18. The prefix “re-“ in the word “reuse” means ..............................
A. against
B. again
C. for
D. no
19. This book is .............................. that I try to read it from beginning to end at one time.
A. so interested
B. too interesting
C. so interesting
D. such interesting
20. Which sentence has the same meaning as the root one?
 “He said that he had to leave then”.
A. “I had to leave then,” he said.	B. “I must leave now,” he said.
 C. “He had to leave now,” he said.	 D. “He has to leave then,” he said.
21. If you don't understand many words, you can .............................. them up in the dictionary.
A. finish
B. get
C. find
D. look
22. We can’t help ................................ when he told us what happened.
A. laughing
B. laugh
C. to laugh
D. to be laughing
23. Do you know the boy.............................. to Mrs Nga?
A. is talking
B. talked
C. talking
D. he talks
24. It's an hour since he .............................., so he must be at the office now.
A. has left
B. is leaving
C. was leaving
D. left
25. TV is bringing not only information .............................. entertainment.
A. although
B. and
C. but also
D. as
b. Fill in the blanks with the correct prepositions: (70,2=1,4 pts)
26. The cinema is ………….…….……the drugstore and the temple. 
27. What ………….…….……having dinner at Mr. Tom’s house this evening? 
28. We are interested in playing soccer. We always play it………….…….……Sunday 
 afternoon in the school ground. 
29. Charles Dickens was very famous………….…….……his novels. 
30. When my eldest brother grew up, she went to Australia ………….…….……study 
 mathematics and chemistry. 
31. Miss Huong used to spend much money………….…….……shoes and clothes. 
32. I haven’t written to my penpal in New York ………….…….…… last Christmas. 
c. Write the correct form of the words given in capital letters: (70,2=1,4 pts)
33. Mr. John runs his business ………….…….……	(SUCCESS)
34. In electronics, we learn to repair ………….…….……appliances. 	(HOUSE)
35. Two………….…….……from the group “Friend of the Earth” are talking 
 to the students in this school about how to protect the environment. 	(REPRESENT)
36. Every day, there are two ………….…….……from Da Nang to Ho Chi Minh city. (FLY)
37. The Sword Lake is one of the ………….…….……places in Ha Noi. 	(HISTORY) 
38. He drives very………….…….…… He is sure to have an accident.	(CARE)
39. Environmental ………….…….……is every one’s responsibility.	(PROTECT)
d. Supply the correct form of the verbs in the brackets: (60,2=1,2 pts)
40. The thiefs were caught when they (leave) ………….…….…… the bank. 
41. Remember (turn) ………….…….……of the fans before leaving the class.
42. A: You (see) ………….…….……the film Titanic yet? - B: Yes, I saw it in 2010. 
43. Every year in Asia, many historical places (destroy) ………….…….……seriously. 
44. There (be) ………….…….……no rain here for over four months. 
45. We have known them for six years, when we first (meet)………….…….……them, they 
 were working in a foreign company. 
III. READING: 
a. Read and circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage: (100,2=2,0 pts)
 Mr. and Mrs Gray live in a big city, and they (46) ……….…….…a son. His name is Peter, and he doesn’t like (47) ……….…….…. One day Mrs Gray said (48)……….…….…her husband, “(49)……….…….…. in the city all the time isn’t good for Peter”. So last summer they found a small house in the country and took Peter (50)……….…….….for a vacation.
 When they arrived (51) ……….…….…. the house, Mrs Gray said to Peter, “We are going to stay (52) ……….…….…. for two weeks.” 
 The boy ran (53) ……….…….….the house and looked in all the rooms, and he ran back to (54)…….…….….mother and said to her, “I haven’t found the bathtub, Mom. Where is it?”
“This is a very small house, Peter,” his mother said. “This is (55) ……….…….…. to be a very nice vacation.”
46.
A. have
B. has
C. are having
D. had
47.
A. wash
B. washed
C. to wash
D. being washed
48.
A. with
B. from
C. at
D. to
49.
A. Live
B. Living
C. Lives 
D. Lived
50.
A. house
B. this
C. here
D. there
51.
A. between
B. from
C. at
D. to
52.
A. here
B. this house
C. there
D. this place
53.
A. to
B. into
C. for
D. from
54.
A. his
B. him
C. they
D. their
55.
A. going
B. go
C. goes
D. went
b. There is a mistake in each line of the following passage. Find and correct it: 
(5 0,2 = 1.0 pt)
Eg: 0. I haven’t saw my grandmother for two years.
0/ seen
 My name is Anderson and I have been here for a little days. I am from out of town. I have several friends in this city and I have come to 
56. ->
visit them. Actually, I am used to live in this city many years ago. I was born here and my wife was born in a little town nearby.
57. ->
 We both went to school and had a lot of friends here. We have been in New York since more than fifteen years.
58. ->
 We live in the suburbs and I work in the city. I must to get up early every day to go to work.
59. ->
 I work from eight o’clock in the morning until a little after six hour in the evening.
60. ->
c. Read the passage and fill the suitable word in the blank: (100,2=2 pts)
 In the first year of lower secondary (61)……………………., I had some difficulties in learning English. My English pronunciation (62)…………………….really bad and my English grammar was worse. I did not (63)…………………….how to improve them. I didn’t want my father (64)…………………….mother to know about this. One afternoon after the lesson, my teacher (65)…………………….English told me to wait (66)……………………. her outside the classroom. She took (67) ……………………. to the school library and showed me tapes of pronunciation drills kept in a glass bookcase. She also told me how to use an English- English dictionary to (68)…………………….my English grammar. “Now I think you know what you should do” she said. I made much progress and only one year later, I won the first (69)…………………….in the English Speaking Contest (70)…………………….for secondary school students in my hometown.
IV WRITING:
a. Rearrange the words to make meaningful sentences: (5 0,2 = 1.0 pt)
71. chairs/ to/ mind/ put/ helping/ those/ do/ and/ away?/ you/ tables/ us
…………………………………………………..……………………………………………….
72. asked/ to/ much./ play/ his/ games/ Mr. Thanh/ not/ video/ too/ son
…………………………………………………..……………………………………………….
73. met/ the/ such/ singer./ time/ it/ I/ a/ is/ first/ famous
…………………………………………………..……………………………………………….
74. this/ have not/ last/ my/ since/ eaten/ kind/ parents/ food/ summer./ of
…………………………………………………..……………………………………………….
75. water/ children/ warm/ enough/ wasn’t/ these/ the/ swim (in)./ for/ to
…………………………………………………..……………………………………………….
b. Complete the second sentence, using the word given in brackets so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. Do not change the words given in any way: (50,4=2,0 pts) 
76. Nobody used this house last year. 
-> This house…………………………………………………..………………………………..
77. I would like you to help me clean the house.
 -> Do you mind.......................................………………………………………......................?
78. The milk was so hot that he could not drink it.
-> The milk was not……………………………………………………………………………
79. Remember to lock all the doors and windows before going out.
 Don’t ...............................................................................
80. “Where are you going next weekend?” Trung said to his friends.
-> Trung asked…………………………………………………….……………………………..
c. Write a composition about 130 words about the subject you like best:
(don’t show your name, your school or your village): (3.0pts)
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 8 
NĂM HỌC: 2012 – 2013
	MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
I. PHONETICS: 
a. Choose one word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C, or D. (60,2=1,2 pts)
1.
A. says
2.
B. surrounding
3.
B. information
4.
C. weather
5. 
D. semester
6. 
A. through
b. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others (40,2=0,8 pt)
7.
B. commercial
8.
A. institute
9.
D. selection
10. 
C. reduce
II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:
a. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (150,2=3,0 pts)
11 - B. 
protect
12 - A. was sleeping - rang
13 - A. 
ought
14 - D. 
invited
15 - D. 
being asked
16 - C. 
don’t they
17 - D. 
was studying
18 - B. 
again
19 - C. so interesting
20 - B. “I must leave now,” he said.
21 - D. 
look
22 - A. 
laughing
23 - C. talking
24 - D. 
left
25 - C. 
but also
b. Fill in the blanks with the correct prepositions: (70,2=1,4 pts)
26 - between 
27 - about
28 - on
29 - for
30 - to
31 - on
32 - since
c. Write the correct form of the words given in capital letters to complete the following sentences. (70,2=1,4 pts)
33. successfully 
34. household 
35. representatives
36. flights
37. historical
38. carelessly
39. protection
d. Supply the correct form of the verbs in the brackets: (60,2=1,2 pts)
40
were leaving
41
to turn
42
Have…… seen
43
are destroyed
44
has been
45
met
III. READING: 
a. Read and circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage: (100,2=2,0 pts)
46 - A. have
47 - C. to wash
48 - D. to
49 - B. Living
50 - D. there
51 - C. at
52 - A. here
53 - B. into
54 - A. his
55 - A. going
b. There is a mistake in each line of the following passage. Find and correct it: 
(5 0,2 = 1.0 pt)
56. a little -> a few
57. am used to-> used to
58. since -> for
59. must to -> must/ have to
60. hour -> o’clock
c. Read the passage and fill the suitable word in the blank: (100,2=2 pts)
61. school
62. was
63. know
64. and
65. of
66. for
67. me
68. improve
69. prize
70. held
IV. WRITING:
a. Rearrange the words to make meaningful sentences. (5 0,2 = 1.0 pt)
71. Do you mind helping us to put those chairs and tables away?
72. Mr. Thanh asked his son not to play video games too much.
73. It is the first time I met such a famous singer.
74. My parents have not eaten this kind of food since last summer.
75. The water wasn’t warm enough for these children to swim (in).
b. Complete the second sentence, using the word given in brackets so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. Do not change the words given in any way. (50,4=2,0 pts) 
76. This house wasn’t used last year. 
77. Do you mind helping me to clean the house?
78. The milk was not warm/cool enough for him to drink.
79. Don’t forget to lock all the doors and windows before going out.
80.“Trung asked his friends where they were going the following weekend.
c. Write a composition about 130 words about the subject you like best: 
 (don’t show your name, your school or your village): (3.0 pts)
The composition must have at least three ideas below. 
1. Mở bài: Nêu được chủ đề đó là môn học mà em ưa thích là môn gì. (VD: …, I like “English” best…)	(được 0,5 điểm)
2. Thân bài: Nêu và trình bày được một số vấn đề liên quan đến môn học đó như: Môn học đó mang lại cho học sinh những lợi ích gì hay lý do thích môn học, thời gian cũng như cách học như thế nào vv… 	(được 2,0 điểm)
3. Kết luận: Tóm tắt, khẳng định lại được các lý do đã trình bày ở hai phần trước và cảm nghĩ hay hướng của người học trong tương lai với môn học... 
 	(được 0,5 điểm)